Law · Criminal Law
Mr. A and Ms. B (both Hindus) performed a marriage ceremonies merely by seeking blessings of family members, without observing any requisite Hindu rites, ceremonies, or recognized customs. Mr. A later converts to religion 'X' and marries Ms. C. Ms. B files a complaint for bigamy against Mr. A. Since a valid first marriage is an essential prerequisite for the offence of bigamy under Indian penal law, which statement is legally correct?
Verified Solution4 OptionsUpdated: October 2026👁️1 View
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- 1Mr. A has committed bigamy because the consent of family members validates a Hindu marriage for penal purposes.
- 2Mr. A has committed bigamy because religious conversion with the intent to marry again is automatically punished as bigamy.
- 3Mr. A has not committed the statutory offence of bigamy because his first marriage was not solemnized according to essential legal rites and is not valid in law.✓
- 4Mr. A has committed bigamy because he married again during the subsistence of the relationship.
Correct answer
Mr. A has not committed the statutory offence of bigamy because his first marriage was not solemnized according to essential legal rites and is not valid in law.
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