Economics · Banking & Risk Management
During the year-end closing on March 31, 2025, a bank's CBS is programmed to automatically calculate the Provision for Non-Performing Assets based on the number of days an account has been overdue. An account with a balance of 1,000,000 has been overdue for 95 days, but the system fails to categorize it as Sub-standard because a manual 'stop-flag' was placed on the account by a user. What is the primary risk associated with this computerized accounting scenario?
Verified Solution4 OptionsUpdated: October 2026👁️1 View
Share:
- 1Liquidity Risk
- 2Market Risk
- 3Operational Risk leading to Regulatory Non-compliance✓
- 4Credit Risk
Correct answer
Operational Risk leading to Regulatory Non-compliance
Download Single Question PDF
Save this question and verified answer as a clean study sheet with live clickable link.
👥
Share with Friends & Study Groups
Challenge your peer aspirants on WhatsApp or Telegram to solve this question!
Online Test Series
Start Free Mock Test →Preparing for Economics?
Practice full-length mock tests with real exam timers, instant score analysis, and all-India ranking.
Chapter Practice
Practice Banking & Risk Management MCQs →Want more practice questions on Banking & Risk Management?
Solve complete topic-wise tests with detailed solutions on GkGet.
Related Practice Questions
Recommended practice questions in Economics · Banking & Risk Management